First Question
In John 20:17, Jesus saith unto her, "Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God."
If Jesus was the Father and the only God, can you explain this verse?
First Response
The book of John differs greatly from the other gospels in that it does not necessarily present a chronological approach to the life of Jesus but rather a topical one. John wrote this book to a Gentile audience, who were unfamiliar with the Old Testament, with the purpose of expressing the identity and significance of Jesus Christ rather than presenting an ordered history of His actions. John shows us that Christ had a duel nature. He was God possessing infinite power, yet at the same time he was human and subject to human limitations.
The verse in question takes place in the latter portion of the book of John, so let us examine some key verses that take place earlier to gain proper context.
The very first chapter and verse, states, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
Verse fourteen, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."
The very first chapter explains the identity of Christ. In the beginning was the Word. The Greek word for "Word" is logos. Much can be said about this single Greek word, however let us simply deduce that we can understand it to mean 'the revealed will of God.' Therefore, 'the revealed will of God' was naturally with God and was not only with Him but was in actuality God Himself. This 'revealed will' was then made flesh in the man Jesus Christ, and dwelt among us.
That which was God was made flesh. Jesus Christ, a singular entity, possessing two distinct natures: Spirit and flesh. One nature was the infinite omnipresent God who possessed the title of Father, while the finite nature of the flesh possessed the title of the Son.
There is however a popular belief of multiple entities in the Godhead. If, indeed, there are three separately distinct entities in the Godhead (Father, Son, and the Holy Ghost) how can we account for Matthew 1:18?
(Mat 1:18 KJV) Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
If we were dealing with separate entities wouldn't the Holy Ghost rather be the Father? Instead, we are dealing with a singular entity.
Jesus said:
(Mat 28:19 KJV) Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
The word 'name' is singular and represents the singular name of the One God having the titles: Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. What name then did the apostles baptize in? In the name of Jesus. (Acts 2:38 , 8:16 , 10:48 , 19:3-5)
Jesus also said:
(John 10:27-30) "My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. I and my Father are one."
Jesus Himself attests to His singularity. Within this context, let us now look back to the verse in the latter portion of John.
(John 20:17 KJV) Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
Even though it appears that Christ is speaking as though there are two individuals (Father and Son), in actuality he is saying that the finite portion of his nature (Son) will ascend to His infinite omnipresent nature (Father). In the structure of authority, one nature was supreme, while the other nature had to be submissive for one had all power while the other held the physical limitations of humanity.
From the beginning, there has only been One God.
(Deu 6:4 KJV) Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:
The New Testament does not change this fact.
Paul explains the Godhead to Timothy:
(1 Tim 3:16 KJV) And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
God robed himself in a fleshly garment (Jesus). His infinite Spirit nature justified the fleshly nature, he was seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world. This God became flesh and was named Jesus, lived in our world, was crucified, buried, resurrected, and finally ascended into glory.
Jesus spoke to Nicodemus:
(John 3:13 KJV) And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Follow up Questions
1. Since you say Jesus was in fact the Father, and the Son, I am assuming there are no examples of a two way conversation between Him and the Father. Is this correct?
2. I am assuming you are of the opinion that the flesh, the Son of God, is not omnipresent. If this is correct, then can you explain how Jesus, the Son or flesh of God is speaking in the flesh and is say he is in heaven at the same time? John 3:13 states, And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down
from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Response to First Follow up Question
I assume you refer to these portions of scripture:
Jesus' Baptism:
(Luke 3:21-22 KJV) Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened, And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased.
Jesus' Transfiguration:
(Mat 17:5 KJV) While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.
Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem:
(John 12:27-8 KJV) Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour. Father, glorify thy name. Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again.
Bernard states, "A voice does not necessarily indicate a distinct person in the Godhead but only another manifestation of the omnipresent Spirit of God. In each of the three cases, the voice was not for the benefit of Jesus but for the benefit of others. The voice at Christ's baptism was part of the inauguration of His earthly ministry. It was for the people's sake....The voice introduced Jesus as the Son of God: "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased (Matt. 3:17). The voice at the Transfiguration was for the benefit of the onlooking disciples, for the message was, "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him" (Matt. 17:5). The third manifestation of the voice occurred when a group of Greeks (apparently Gentile proselytes) came to see Jesus. Jesus explained that the voice was not for Him but for the people." (The Oneness of God, 175-6)
(John 12:30 KJV) Jesus answered and said, This voice came not because of me, but for your sakes.
Response to Second Follow up Question
(John 3:13 KJV) And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
I stated that the Son had a finite fleshly nature, and I was referring literally to His past physical self when He walked the earth: body, blood, bones, etc. Even though Jesus is the Son, beyond the flesh He is still the Father and possesses all the attributes thereof.
Jesus said:
(Mat 18:20 KJV) For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.
Although Christ's physical self was not omnipresent, His Spiritual self remained omnipresent. While He walked this earth, if two or three were gathered together in His name His physical self could not be in two places at once for God factored in physical limitations in the human design. Jesus - however - was God, possessing that infinite omnipresent nature and would therefore be able to be in the midst of any group that gathered together in His name.
In other words, "...while the fullness of God's character was located in the human body of Jesus, the omnipresent Spirit of Jesus could not be so confined. While Jesus walked this earth as a man, His Spirit was still everywhere at the same time." (Bernard, 81-2)
Jesus' Baptism:
(Luke 3:21-22 KJV) Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened, And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased.
Jesus' Transfiguration:
(Mat 17:5 KJV) While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.
Jesus' triumphal entry into Jerusalem:
(John 12:27-8 KJV) Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour. Father, glorify thy name. Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again.
Bernard states, "A voice does not necessarily indicate a distinct person in the Godhead but only another manifestation of the omnipresent Spirit of God. In each of the three cases, the voice was not for the benefit of Jesus but for the benefit of others. The voice at Christ's baptism was part of the inauguration of His earthly ministry. It was for the people's sake....The voice introduced Jesus as the Son of God: "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased (Matt. 3:17). The voice at the Transfiguration was for the benefit of the onlooking disciples, for the message was, "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him" (Matt. 17:5). The third manifestation of the voice occurred when a group of Greeks (apparently Gentile proselytes) came to see Jesus. Jesus explained that the voice was not for Him but for the people." (The Oneness of God, 175-6)
(John 12:30 KJV) Jesus answered and said, This voice came not because of me, but for your sakes.
Response to Second Follow up Question
(John 3:13 KJV) And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
I stated that the Son had a finite fleshly nature, and I was referring literally to His past physical self when He walked the earth: body, blood, bones, etc. Even though Jesus is the Son, beyond the flesh He is still the Father and possesses all the attributes thereof.
Jesus said:
(Mat 18:20 KJV) For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.
Although Christ's physical self was not omnipresent, His Spiritual self remained omnipresent. While He walked this earth, if two or three were gathered together in His name His physical self could not be in two places at once for God factored in physical limitations in the human design. Jesus - however - was God, possessing that infinite omnipresent nature and would therefore be able to be in the midst of any group that gathered together in His name.
In other words, "...while the fullness of God's character was located in the human body of Jesus, the omnipresent Spirit of Jesus could not be so confined. While Jesus walked this earth as a man, His Spirit was still everywhere at the same time." (Bernard, 81-2)
- M. Keith Sartin, Jr.
